Jesus True Israel
The whole biblical-theological setting of redemptive history seems to setting the stage in the OT for the NT understanding of Jesus as God's true Son. That is, Israel, to whom all the promises are given, and from whom Jesus would come, is called "Israel is My firstborn son" (Ex 4.22). Again, the prophet says, "When Israel was a child, I loved him, and out of Egypt I called my son" (Hosea 11.1). Redemptive history demonstrates that God pours out his love upon his first born (dare I say "only begotten") son. Thus, in the NT the proclamation of Jesus as the "son of God" is staggering and pregnant with fulfillment language. I say fulfillment b/c Matthew says, "And he rose and took the child and his mother by night and departed to Egypt. And remained there until the death of Herod. This was to fulfill what the Lord had spoken by the prophet, "out of Egypt I will call My son" (Mt 2:14-15 cf. Hosea 11:1).
Also notice that Hosea is speaking out against "all Israel" throughout the entire book. He is addressing a nation, but yet this national language seems to have individual overtones which are picked up by the NT authors (as stated in Mt above). Is the prophetic ministry of Hosea to a national "Son" going to be fulfilled in the True Son, Jesus Christ, (and consequently fulfilled in us who are in Him)? Thus, establishing Jesus as the True Son of God, the True Israel? Notice Hosea's national yet individual prophecy:
"Come let us return to the LORD; for he has torn us, that he may heal us;
He has struck us down, and he will bind us up.
After two days he will revive us;
on the third day he will raise us up,
that we may live before him (Hos. 6.1-2).
This is fulfilled in Jesus, God's True Son, the True Israel. Right?
Jesus was struck down and was raised on the third day in order that "we may live before him"!
What say you of this?